Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 16:49
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What questions are asked in a JP Morgan Hirevue interview?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
The Biggest Pokémon Card Crashers And Climbers This Week - June 2 - IGN
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.