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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 10:19

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Where did the false claim that Haitian immigrants are eating pets come from?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How do I complain on a boy coming to marriage with me without my involvement despite no connection with him though he had an illegal affair?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Can I know a love story of a medical student?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.